Latin words with no plurals in EnglishLatin (or Greek) -x becomes -ght?Pluralisation of Latin WordsLatin plurals when talking about fallaciesWhy Greek morphemes over Latin, or Latin over Greek? *A Call to Lexicographers*Why does “stigmata” [often] have penult stress?Latin words borrowed from Roman occupation?Plural of Latin masculine nouns ending in -o; eg. “folio”History and Explanation of Scientific English Pronunciation Convention: PS, PN, PTWhat does Latin “et alios” mean?Where are all the Latin words?

Ideas for colorfully and clearly highlighting graph edges according to weights

Can a planet have a different gravitational pull depending on its location in orbit around its sun?

extract characters between two commas?

Is it legal to have the "// (c) 2019 John Smith" header in all files when there are hundreds of contributors?

What is the command to reset a PC without deleting any files

Latin words with no plurals in English

Why does this relative pronoun not take the case of the noun it is referring to?

Deciding between multiple birth names and dates?

What happens when a metallic dragon and a chromatic dragon mate?

Landlord wants to switch my lease to a "Land contract" to "get back at the city"

Calculate Levenshtein distance between two strings in Python

What are the advantages and disadvantages of running one shots compared to campaigns?

I am not able to install anything in ubuntu

Denied boarding due to overcrowding, Sparpreis ticket. What are my rights?

What do the Banks children have against barley water?

How is it possible for user's password to be changed after storage was encrypted? (on OS X, Android)

New order #4: World

Why do UK politicians seemingly ignore opinion polls on Brexit?

Extreme, but not acceptable situation and I can't start the work tomorrow morning

Eliminate empty elements from a list with a specific pattern

Why is making salt water prohibited on Shabbat?

Is a car considered movable or immovable property?

Why do we use polarized capacitors?

Is it true that "The augmented fourth (A4) and the diminished fifth (d5) are the only aug and dim intervals that appear in diatonic scales"



Latin words with no plurals in English


Latin (or Greek) -x becomes -ght?Pluralisation of Latin WordsLatin plurals when talking about fallaciesWhy Greek morphemes over Latin, or Latin over Greek? *A Call to Lexicographers*Why does “stigmata” [often] have penult stress?Latin words borrowed from Roman occupation?Plural of Latin masculine nouns ending in -o; eg. “folio”History and Explanation of Scientific English Pronunciation Convention: PS, PN, PTWhat does Latin “et alios” mean?Where are all the Latin words?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








4















Plurals derived from Latin words ending with -us normally have the ending -i. However, the plural of virus is viruses and the plural of bonus is bonuses because these words do not have Latin plurals in English.



Considering the fact that the majority of English words come from Latin (or Greek, usually via Latin), why don't these words have Latin plurals in English?



Ok, viri is Latin for "men", not "viruses"; and boni in Latin means "good men", not "bonuses", but we are speaking English, so why don't we use viri and boni as plurals for virus and bonus in order to follow normal convention?










share|improve this question

















  • 2





    Normal convention is adding the -(e)s suffix, after all we're talking about English, not Latin nor Greek. About 25 % of words are derived from Latin, it is not the majority of English words, it is the largest percentage. Must check Wikipedia for that percentage figure...

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago







  • 3





    Latin loanwords are about 29% according to Wikipedia, so it's not "the majority" of words, i.e. 51%

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    I think you need to take a closer look at the second link, it clearly says that "viri" is a false plural form of virus. Moreover, “vīrī [is the] genitive singular of virus” I am downvoting this question because it is supplying inaccurate and incorrect information.

    – Mari-Lou A
    9 hours ago







  • 2





    The notion that it is "normal convention" to replace "-us" by "-i" is not even true when restricted to "-us" nouns taken directly from Latin with no change in spelling. Rather, there are conventions to use the "-es" suffix as @Mari-Lou said, and to use the original word's plural whatever that is. "Viri" is neither the normal-form English plural of "virus" nor the Latin noun's plural, so it would not be any English "normal convention" to adopt "viri" as plural of "virus".

    – Rosie F
    9 hours ago






  • 4





    For one thing, nothing but second declension Latin -us nouns become -i in the nominative plural or singular genitive. The many third declension nouns like genus, genera or corpus, corpora do not, nor do fourth declension nouns like status, apparatus, manus. But for another thing, that's Latin morphology, not English; vide ignoramus et seqq.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago

















4















Plurals derived from Latin words ending with -us normally have the ending -i. However, the plural of virus is viruses and the plural of bonus is bonuses because these words do not have Latin plurals in English.



Considering the fact that the majority of English words come from Latin (or Greek, usually via Latin), why don't these words have Latin plurals in English?



Ok, viri is Latin for "men", not "viruses"; and boni in Latin means "good men", not "bonuses", but we are speaking English, so why don't we use viri and boni as plurals for virus and bonus in order to follow normal convention?










share|improve this question

















  • 2





    Normal convention is adding the -(e)s suffix, after all we're talking about English, not Latin nor Greek. About 25 % of words are derived from Latin, it is not the majority of English words, it is the largest percentage. Must check Wikipedia for that percentage figure...

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago







  • 3





    Latin loanwords are about 29% according to Wikipedia, so it's not "the majority" of words, i.e. 51%

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    I think you need to take a closer look at the second link, it clearly says that "viri" is a false plural form of virus. Moreover, “vīrī [is the] genitive singular of virus” I am downvoting this question because it is supplying inaccurate and incorrect information.

    – Mari-Lou A
    9 hours ago







  • 2





    The notion that it is "normal convention" to replace "-us" by "-i" is not even true when restricted to "-us" nouns taken directly from Latin with no change in spelling. Rather, there are conventions to use the "-es" suffix as @Mari-Lou said, and to use the original word's plural whatever that is. "Viri" is neither the normal-form English plural of "virus" nor the Latin noun's plural, so it would not be any English "normal convention" to adopt "viri" as plural of "virus".

    – Rosie F
    9 hours ago






  • 4





    For one thing, nothing but second declension Latin -us nouns become -i in the nominative plural or singular genitive. The many third declension nouns like genus, genera or corpus, corpora do not, nor do fourth declension nouns like status, apparatus, manus. But for another thing, that's Latin morphology, not English; vide ignoramus et seqq.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago













4












4








4


1






Plurals derived from Latin words ending with -us normally have the ending -i. However, the plural of virus is viruses and the plural of bonus is bonuses because these words do not have Latin plurals in English.



Considering the fact that the majority of English words come from Latin (or Greek, usually via Latin), why don't these words have Latin plurals in English?



Ok, viri is Latin for "men", not "viruses"; and boni in Latin means "good men", not "bonuses", but we are speaking English, so why don't we use viri and boni as plurals for virus and bonus in order to follow normal convention?










share|improve this question














Plurals derived from Latin words ending with -us normally have the ending -i. However, the plural of virus is viruses and the plural of bonus is bonuses because these words do not have Latin plurals in English.



Considering the fact that the majority of English words come from Latin (or Greek, usually via Latin), why don't these words have Latin plurals in English?



Ok, viri is Latin for "men", not "viruses"; and boni in Latin means "good men", not "bonuses", but we are speaking English, so why don't we use viri and boni as plurals for virus and bonus in order to follow normal convention?







latin irregular-plurals






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 11 hours ago









Chris RogersChris Rogers

827211




827211







  • 2





    Normal convention is adding the -(e)s suffix, after all we're talking about English, not Latin nor Greek. About 25 % of words are derived from Latin, it is not the majority of English words, it is the largest percentage. Must check Wikipedia for that percentage figure...

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago







  • 3





    Latin loanwords are about 29% according to Wikipedia, so it's not "the majority" of words, i.e. 51%

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    I think you need to take a closer look at the second link, it clearly says that "viri" is a false plural form of virus. Moreover, “vīrī [is the] genitive singular of virus” I am downvoting this question because it is supplying inaccurate and incorrect information.

    – Mari-Lou A
    9 hours ago







  • 2





    The notion that it is "normal convention" to replace "-us" by "-i" is not even true when restricted to "-us" nouns taken directly from Latin with no change in spelling. Rather, there are conventions to use the "-es" suffix as @Mari-Lou said, and to use the original word's plural whatever that is. "Viri" is neither the normal-form English plural of "virus" nor the Latin noun's plural, so it would not be any English "normal convention" to adopt "viri" as plural of "virus".

    – Rosie F
    9 hours ago






  • 4





    For one thing, nothing but second declension Latin -us nouns become -i in the nominative plural or singular genitive. The many third declension nouns like genus, genera or corpus, corpora do not, nor do fourth declension nouns like status, apparatus, manus. But for another thing, that's Latin morphology, not English; vide ignoramus et seqq.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago












  • 2





    Normal convention is adding the -(e)s suffix, after all we're talking about English, not Latin nor Greek. About 25 % of words are derived from Latin, it is not the majority of English words, it is the largest percentage. Must check Wikipedia for that percentage figure...

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago







  • 3





    Latin loanwords are about 29% according to Wikipedia, so it's not "the majority" of words, i.e. 51%

    – Mari-Lou A
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    I think you need to take a closer look at the second link, it clearly says that "viri" is a false plural form of virus. Moreover, “vīrī [is the] genitive singular of virus” I am downvoting this question because it is supplying inaccurate and incorrect information.

    – Mari-Lou A
    9 hours ago







  • 2





    The notion that it is "normal convention" to replace "-us" by "-i" is not even true when restricted to "-us" nouns taken directly from Latin with no change in spelling. Rather, there are conventions to use the "-es" suffix as @Mari-Lou said, and to use the original word's plural whatever that is. "Viri" is neither the normal-form English plural of "virus" nor the Latin noun's plural, so it would not be any English "normal convention" to adopt "viri" as plural of "virus".

    – Rosie F
    9 hours ago






  • 4





    For one thing, nothing but second declension Latin -us nouns become -i in the nominative plural or singular genitive. The many third declension nouns like genus, genera or corpus, corpora do not, nor do fourth declension nouns like status, apparatus, manus. But for another thing, that's Latin morphology, not English; vide ignoramus et seqq.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago







2




2





Normal convention is adding the -(e)s suffix, after all we're talking about English, not Latin nor Greek. About 25 % of words are derived from Latin, it is not the majority of English words, it is the largest percentage. Must check Wikipedia for that percentage figure...

– Mari-Lou A
10 hours ago






Normal convention is adding the -(e)s suffix, after all we're talking about English, not Latin nor Greek. About 25 % of words are derived from Latin, it is not the majority of English words, it is the largest percentage. Must check Wikipedia for that percentage figure...

– Mari-Lou A
10 hours ago





3




3





Latin loanwords are about 29% according to Wikipedia, so it's not "the majority" of words, i.e. 51%

– Mari-Lou A
10 hours ago





Latin loanwords are about 29% according to Wikipedia, so it's not "the majority" of words, i.e. 51%

– Mari-Lou A
10 hours ago




2




2





I think you need to take a closer look at the second link, it clearly says that "viri" is a false plural form of virus. Moreover, “vīrī [is the] genitive singular of virus” I am downvoting this question because it is supplying inaccurate and incorrect information.

– Mari-Lou A
9 hours ago






I think you need to take a closer look at the second link, it clearly says that "viri" is a false plural form of virus. Moreover, “vīrī [is the] genitive singular of virus” I am downvoting this question because it is supplying inaccurate and incorrect information.

– Mari-Lou A
9 hours ago





2




2





The notion that it is "normal convention" to replace "-us" by "-i" is not even true when restricted to "-us" nouns taken directly from Latin with no change in spelling. Rather, there are conventions to use the "-es" suffix as @Mari-Lou said, and to use the original word's plural whatever that is. "Viri" is neither the normal-form English plural of "virus" nor the Latin noun's plural, so it would not be any English "normal convention" to adopt "viri" as plural of "virus".

– Rosie F
9 hours ago





The notion that it is "normal convention" to replace "-us" by "-i" is not even true when restricted to "-us" nouns taken directly from Latin with no change in spelling. Rather, there are conventions to use the "-es" suffix as @Mari-Lou said, and to use the original word's plural whatever that is. "Viri" is neither the normal-form English plural of "virus" nor the Latin noun's plural, so it would not be any English "normal convention" to adopt "viri" as plural of "virus".

– Rosie F
9 hours ago




4




4





For one thing, nothing but second declension Latin -us nouns become -i in the nominative plural or singular genitive. The many third declension nouns like genus, genera or corpus, corpora do not, nor do fourth declension nouns like status, apparatus, manus. But for another thing, that's Latin morphology, not English; vide ignoramus et seqq.

– tchrist
8 hours ago





For one thing, nothing but second declension Latin -us nouns become -i in the nominative plural or singular genitive. The many third declension nouns like genus, genera or corpus, corpora do not, nor do fourth declension nouns like status, apparatus, manus. But for another thing, that's Latin morphology, not English; vide ignoramus et seqq.

– tchrist
8 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















13














We are speaking English, not Latin.



Just because a word comes from another language does not mean that the system of declension (or changes in form to determine syntactic function) follows it.



First, most English users are not familiar with the origin languages of their vocabulary. Old English, French, Latin, Greek, Norse - English users know words from these languages without necessarily knowing anything about these languages' rules for declension, conjugation, or syntax. If the word goes into wider use, users will tend to apply standard English rules to those words: to add an -s for the plural. English is not an obstinate holdout in this regard. Latin does the same thing with words from other languages: compare the Greek-derived abacus (plural abaci) and the Greek root abax (plural abakes). Latin users could have used the third declension structure (which is closer but still not identical to Greek), but they instead created a new word abacus and went with it. Words entering a new language are usually subject to the new language's structures. It would take larger scale structural borrowing to have English use the same declension structure as Latin. That hasn't happened.



Second, even if we wanted to equate a Latin plural form with the English plural form, the question would be, "Which one?" The nominative and accusative plural of the neuter second declension noun virus is vira, but there's also a genitive plural (virorum), a dative plural (viris), and an ablative plural (viris). English lacks all of these forms, but if you're working on the assumption that Latin declension matters, then these forms ought to be accounted for. (That's not to mention the four other declensions, the notion of grammatical gender, or the other distinctions in Latin we're neglecting.)



Using one of these forms is an arbitrary choice, and one that is fundamentally ungrammatical within the structure of that original language. Thus exceptions that preserve the Latin-formed plural like alumni (the nominative plural of alumnus, except in English the end is usually pronounced like "eye" and not like "knee") aren't generative of new plurals, just as woman -> women is not generative; the -i affix cannot be used to form new plurals in English except by exceptional prescriptivism.



Finally, words derived from other languages are frequently subject to more radical changes in spelling or form. Culture comes (via French) from the Latin word cultura, but even the singular form has shifted. When words come into English, its users tend to see them as new words rather than as avatars from their prior language. Forms develop accordingly.



For these reasons, the list of Latin-derived words that have Latin-derived plural forms is small, tends to be academic in usage, and doesn't follow a single rule. Most Latin-derived English words have English or Anglicized affixes.






share|improve this answer


















  • 1





    It's worth noting that different fields will often use (whether derived from Latin or not) words whose base forms are spelled and pronounced identically, but whose other forms vary. The link gives a beautiful example of that--insects have antennae and radios have antennas, but the base form of both is spelled "antenna". The present-tense forms of the verbs a baseball player would use if he "flew" (moved quickly) out to second base or "flied" out to second base (hit a fly ball) are both spelled "fly". Words can be spelled the same without their altered forms being interchangeable.

    – supercat
    4 hours ago











Your Answer








StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "97"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);

else
createEditor();

);

function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: false,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: null,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader:
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
,
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);



);













draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fenglish.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f493066%2flatin-words-with-no-plurals-in-english%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









13














We are speaking English, not Latin.



Just because a word comes from another language does not mean that the system of declension (or changes in form to determine syntactic function) follows it.



First, most English users are not familiar with the origin languages of their vocabulary. Old English, French, Latin, Greek, Norse - English users know words from these languages without necessarily knowing anything about these languages' rules for declension, conjugation, or syntax. If the word goes into wider use, users will tend to apply standard English rules to those words: to add an -s for the plural. English is not an obstinate holdout in this regard. Latin does the same thing with words from other languages: compare the Greek-derived abacus (plural abaci) and the Greek root abax (plural abakes). Latin users could have used the third declension structure (which is closer but still not identical to Greek), but they instead created a new word abacus and went with it. Words entering a new language are usually subject to the new language's structures. It would take larger scale structural borrowing to have English use the same declension structure as Latin. That hasn't happened.



Second, even if we wanted to equate a Latin plural form with the English plural form, the question would be, "Which one?" The nominative and accusative plural of the neuter second declension noun virus is vira, but there's also a genitive plural (virorum), a dative plural (viris), and an ablative plural (viris). English lacks all of these forms, but if you're working on the assumption that Latin declension matters, then these forms ought to be accounted for. (That's not to mention the four other declensions, the notion of grammatical gender, or the other distinctions in Latin we're neglecting.)



Using one of these forms is an arbitrary choice, and one that is fundamentally ungrammatical within the structure of that original language. Thus exceptions that preserve the Latin-formed plural like alumni (the nominative plural of alumnus, except in English the end is usually pronounced like "eye" and not like "knee") aren't generative of new plurals, just as woman -> women is not generative; the -i affix cannot be used to form new plurals in English except by exceptional prescriptivism.



Finally, words derived from other languages are frequently subject to more radical changes in spelling or form. Culture comes (via French) from the Latin word cultura, but even the singular form has shifted. When words come into English, its users tend to see them as new words rather than as avatars from their prior language. Forms develop accordingly.



For these reasons, the list of Latin-derived words that have Latin-derived plural forms is small, tends to be academic in usage, and doesn't follow a single rule. Most Latin-derived English words have English or Anglicized affixes.






share|improve this answer


















  • 1





    It's worth noting that different fields will often use (whether derived from Latin or not) words whose base forms are spelled and pronounced identically, but whose other forms vary. The link gives a beautiful example of that--insects have antennae and radios have antennas, but the base form of both is spelled "antenna". The present-tense forms of the verbs a baseball player would use if he "flew" (moved quickly) out to second base or "flied" out to second base (hit a fly ball) are both spelled "fly". Words can be spelled the same without their altered forms being interchangeable.

    – supercat
    4 hours ago















13














We are speaking English, not Latin.



Just because a word comes from another language does not mean that the system of declension (or changes in form to determine syntactic function) follows it.



First, most English users are not familiar with the origin languages of their vocabulary. Old English, French, Latin, Greek, Norse - English users know words from these languages without necessarily knowing anything about these languages' rules for declension, conjugation, or syntax. If the word goes into wider use, users will tend to apply standard English rules to those words: to add an -s for the plural. English is not an obstinate holdout in this regard. Latin does the same thing with words from other languages: compare the Greek-derived abacus (plural abaci) and the Greek root abax (plural abakes). Latin users could have used the third declension structure (which is closer but still not identical to Greek), but they instead created a new word abacus and went with it. Words entering a new language are usually subject to the new language's structures. It would take larger scale structural borrowing to have English use the same declension structure as Latin. That hasn't happened.



Second, even if we wanted to equate a Latin plural form with the English plural form, the question would be, "Which one?" The nominative and accusative plural of the neuter second declension noun virus is vira, but there's also a genitive plural (virorum), a dative plural (viris), and an ablative plural (viris). English lacks all of these forms, but if you're working on the assumption that Latin declension matters, then these forms ought to be accounted for. (That's not to mention the four other declensions, the notion of grammatical gender, or the other distinctions in Latin we're neglecting.)



Using one of these forms is an arbitrary choice, and one that is fundamentally ungrammatical within the structure of that original language. Thus exceptions that preserve the Latin-formed plural like alumni (the nominative plural of alumnus, except in English the end is usually pronounced like "eye" and not like "knee") aren't generative of new plurals, just as woman -> women is not generative; the -i affix cannot be used to form new plurals in English except by exceptional prescriptivism.



Finally, words derived from other languages are frequently subject to more radical changes in spelling or form. Culture comes (via French) from the Latin word cultura, but even the singular form has shifted. When words come into English, its users tend to see them as new words rather than as avatars from their prior language. Forms develop accordingly.



For these reasons, the list of Latin-derived words that have Latin-derived plural forms is small, tends to be academic in usage, and doesn't follow a single rule. Most Latin-derived English words have English or Anglicized affixes.






share|improve this answer


















  • 1





    It's worth noting that different fields will often use (whether derived from Latin or not) words whose base forms are spelled and pronounced identically, but whose other forms vary. The link gives a beautiful example of that--insects have antennae and radios have antennas, but the base form of both is spelled "antenna". The present-tense forms of the verbs a baseball player would use if he "flew" (moved quickly) out to second base or "flied" out to second base (hit a fly ball) are both spelled "fly". Words can be spelled the same without their altered forms being interchangeable.

    – supercat
    4 hours ago













13












13








13







We are speaking English, not Latin.



Just because a word comes from another language does not mean that the system of declension (or changes in form to determine syntactic function) follows it.



First, most English users are not familiar with the origin languages of their vocabulary. Old English, French, Latin, Greek, Norse - English users know words from these languages without necessarily knowing anything about these languages' rules for declension, conjugation, or syntax. If the word goes into wider use, users will tend to apply standard English rules to those words: to add an -s for the plural. English is not an obstinate holdout in this regard. Latin does the same thing with words from other languages: compare the Greek-derived abacus (plural abaci) and the Greek root abax (plural abakes). Latin users could have used the third declension structure (which is closer but still not identical to Greek), but they instead created a new word abacus and went with it. Words entering a new language are usually subject to the new language's structures. It would take larger scale structural borrowing to have English use the same declension structure as Latin. That hasn't happened.



Second, even if we wanted to equate a Latin plural form with the English plural form, the question would be, "Which one?" The nominative and accusative plural of the neuter second declension noun virus is vira, but there's also a genitive plural (virorum), a dative plural (viris), and an ablative plural (viris). English lacks all of these forms, but if you're working on the assumption that Latin declension matters, then these forms ought to be accounted for. (That's not to mention the four other declensions, the notion of grammatical gender, or the other distinctions in Latin we're neglecting.)



Using one of these forms is an arbitrary choice, and one that is fundamentally ungrammatical within the structure of that original language. Thus exceptions that preserve the Latin-formed plural like alumni (the nominative plural of alumnus, except in English the end is usually pronounced like "eye" and not like "knee") aren't generative of new plurals, just as woman -> women is not generative; the -i affix cannot be used to form new plurals in English except by exceptional prescriptivism.



Finally, words derived from other languages are frequently subject to more radical changes in spelling or form. Culture comes (via French) from the Latin word cultura, but even the singular form has shifted. When words come into English, its users tend to see them as new words rather than as avatars from their prior language. Forms develop accordingly.



For these reasons, the list of Latin-derived words that have Latin-derived plural forms is small, tends to be academic in usage, and doesn't follow a single rule. Most Latin-derived English words have English or Anglicized affixes.






share|improve this answer













We are speaking English, not Latin.



Just because a word comes from another language does not mean that the system of declension (or changes in form to determine syntactic function) follows it.



First, most English users are not familiar with the origin languages of their vocabulary. Old English, French, Latin, Greek, Norse - English users know words from these languages without necessarily knowing anything about these languages' rules for declension, conjugation, or syntax. If the word goes into wider use, users will tend to apply standard English rules to those words: to add an -s for the plural. English is not an obstinate holdout in this regard. Latin does the same thing with words from other languages: compare the Greek-derived abacus (plural abaci) and the Greek root abax (plural abakes). Latin users could have used the third declension structure (which is closer but still not identical to Greek), but they instead created a new word abacus and went with it. Words entering a new language are usually subject to the new language's structures. It would take larger scale structural borrowing to have English use the same declension structure as Latin. That hasn't happened.



Second, even if we wanted to equate a Latin plural form with the English plural form, the question would be, "Which one?" The nominative and accusative plural of the neuter second declension noun virus is vira, but there's also a genitive plural (virorum), a dative plural (viris), and an ablative plural (viris). English lacks all of these forms, but if you're working on the assumption that Latin declension matters, then these forms ought to be accounted for. (That's not to mention the four other declensions, the notion of grammatical gender, or the other distinctions in Latin we're neglecting.)



Using one of these forms is an arbitrary choice, and one that is fundamentally ungrammatical within the structure of that original language. Thus exceptions that preserve the Latin-formed plural like alumni (the nominative plural of alumnus, except in English the end is usually pronounced like "eye" and not like "knee") aren't generative of new plurals, just as woman -> women is not generative; the -i affix cannot be used to form new plurals in English except by exceptional prescriptivism.



Finally, words derived from other languages are frequently subject to more radical changes in spelling or form. Culture comes (via French) from the Latin word cultura, but even the singular form has shifted. When words come into English, its users tend to see them as new words rather than as avatars from their prior language. Forms develop accordingly.



For these reasons, the list of Latin-derived words that have Latin-derived plural forms is small, tends to be academic in usage, and doesn't follow a single rule. Most Latin-derived English words have English or Anglicized affixes.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 7 hours ago









TaliesinMerlinTaliesinMerlin

6,9861330




6,9861330







  • 1





    It's worth noting that different fields will often use (whether derived from Latin or not) words whose base forms are spelled and pronounced identically, but whose other forms vary. The link gives a beautiful example of that--insects have antennae and radios have antennas, but the base form of both is spelled "antenna". The present-tense forms of the verbs a baseball player would use if he "flew" (moved quickly) out to second base or "flied" out to second base (hit a fly ball) are both spelled "fly". Words can be spelled the same without their altered forms being interchangeable.

    – supercat
    4 hours ago












  • 1





    It's worth noting that different fields will often use (whether derived from Latin or not) words whose base forms are spelled and pronounced identically, but whose other forms vary. The link gives a beautiful example of that--insects have antennae and radios have antennas, but the base form of both is spelled "antenna". The present-tense forms of the verbs a baseball player would use if he "flew" (moved quickly) out to second base or "flied" out to second base (hit a fly ball) are both spelled "fly". Words can be spelled the same without their altered forms being interchangeable.

    – supercat
    4 hours ago







1




1





It's worth noting that different fields will often use (whether derived from Latin or not) words whose base forms are spelled and pronounced identically, but whose other forms vary. The link gives a beautiful example of that--insects have antennae and radios have antennas, but the base form of both is spelled "antenna". The present-tense forms of the verbs a baseball player would use if he "flew" (moved quickly) out to second base or "flied" out to second base (hit a fly ball) are both spelled "fly". Words can be spelled the same without their altered forms being interchangeable.

– supercat
4 hours ago





It's worth noting that different fields will often use (whether derived from Latin or not) words whose base forms are spelled and pronounced identically, but whose other forms vary. The link gives a beautiful example of that--insects have antennae and radios have antennas, but the base form of both is spelled "antenna". The present-tense forms of the verbs a baseball player would use if he "flew" (moved quickly) out to second base or "flied" out to second base (hit a fly ball) are both spelled "fly". Words can be spelled the same without their altered forms being interchangeable.

– supercat
4 hours ago

















draft saved

draft discarded
















































Thanks for contributing an answer to English Language & Usage Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid


  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fenglish.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f493066%2flatin-words-with-no-plurals-in-english%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Oświęcim Innehåll Historia | Källor | Externa länkar | Navigeringsmeny50°2′18″N 19°13′17″Ö / 50.03833°N 19.22139°Ö / 50.03833; 19.2213950°2′18″N 19°13′17″Ö / 50.03833°N 19.22139°Ö / 50.03833; 19.221393089658Nordisk familjebok, AuschwitzInsidan tro och existensJewish Community i OświęcimAuschwitz Jewish Center: MuseumAuschwitz Jewish Center

Valle di Casies Indice Geografia fisica | Origini del nome | Storia | Società | Amministrazione | Sport | Note | Bibliografia | Voci correlate | Altri progetti | Collegamenti esterni | Menu di navigazione46°46′N 12°11′E / 46.766667°N 12.183333°E46.766667; 12.183333 (Valle di Casies)46°46′N 12°11′E / 46.766667°N 12.183333°E46.766667; 12.183333 (Valle di Casies)Sito istituzionaleAstat Censimento della popolazione 2011 - Determinazione della consistenza dei tre gruppi linguistici della Provincia Autonoma di Bolzano-Alto Adige - giugno 2012Numeri e fattiValle di CasiesDato IstatTabella dei gradi/giorno dei Comuni italiani raggruppati per Regione e Provincia26 agosto 1993, n. 412Heraldry of the World: GsiesStatistiche I.StatValCasies.comWikimedia CommonsWikimedia CommonsValle di CasiesSito ufficialeValle di CasiesMM14870458910042978-6

Typsetting diagram chases (with TikZ?) Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How to define the default vertical distance between nodes?Draw edge on arcNumerical conditional within tikz keys?TikZ: Drawing an arc from an intersection to an intersectionDrawing rectilinear curves in Tikz, aka an Etch-a-Sketch drawingLine up nested tikz enviroments or how to get rid of themHow to place nodes in an absolute coordinate system in tikzCommutative diagram with curve connecting between nodesTikz with standalone: pinning tikz coordinates to page cmDrawing a Decision Diagram with Tikz and layout manager