Symmetry in quantum mechanicsSymmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsQuantum mechanics and Lorentz symmetryGenerators of a certain symmetry in Quantum MechanicsEquivalence of symmetry and commuting unitary operatorConcrete example that projective representation of symmetry group occurs in a quantum system except the case of spin half integer?Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsWhat is the definition of parity operator in quantum mechanics?Symmetry of Hamiltonian in harmonic oscillatorDifference between symmetry transformation and basis transformationSymmetries in quantum mechanicsWhat happens to the global $U(1)$ symmetry in alternative formulations of Quantum Mechanics?

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Symmetry in quantum mechanics


Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsQuantum mechanics and Lorentz symmetryGenerators of a certain symmetry in Quantum MechanicsEquivalence of symmetry and commuting unitary operatorConcrete example that projective representation of symmetry group occurs in a quantum system except the case of spin half integer?Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsWhat is the definition of parity operator in quantum mechanics?Symmetry of Hamiltonian in harmonic oscillatorDifference between symmetry transformation and basis transformationSymmetries in quantum mechanicsWhat happens to the global $U(1)$ symmetry in alternative formulations of Quantum Mechanics?













6












$begingroup$


My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    6












    $begingroup$


    My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



    Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      6












      6








      6


      1



      $begingroup$


      My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



      Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



      Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?







      quantum-mechanics operators symmetry hamiltonian commutator






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 5 hours ago









      Qmechanic

      107k121991239




      107k121991239










      asked 7 hours ago









      SimoBartzSimoBartz

      847




      847




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          11












          $begingroup$

          In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



          In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
          $$
          ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
          tag1
          $$

          We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
          $$
          Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
          tag2
          $$

          If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
          $$
          ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
          tag3
          $$

          which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




          For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



          Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
            $endgroup$
            – Chiral Anomaly
            3 hours ago



















          0












          $begingroup$

          What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
          Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
          endalign*

          If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
          $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
          then also
          $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
          This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



          Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
          beginalign*
          [A, P]=0
          endalign*

          for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            11












            $begingroup$

            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              7 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              3 hours ago
















            11












            $begingroup$

            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              7 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              3 hours ago














            11












            11








            11





            $begingroup$

            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 7 hours ago









            Chiral AnomalyChiral Anomaly

            13.3k21745




            13.3k21745











            • $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              7 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              3 hours ago

















            • $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              7 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              3 hours ago
















            $begingroup$
            This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            7 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            7 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
            $endgroup$
            – Chiral Anomaly
            3 hours ago





            $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
            $endgroup$
            – Chiral Anomaly
            3 hours ago












            0












            $begingroup$

            What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
            Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
            endalign*

            If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
            $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
            then also
            $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
            This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



            Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
            beginalign*
            [A, P]=0
            endalign*

            for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
              Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
              endalign*

              If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
              $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
              then also
              $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
              This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



              Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
              beginalign*
              [A, P]=0
              endalign*

              for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
                Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
                endalign*

                If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
                $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
                then also
                $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
                This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



                Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
                beginalign*
                [A, P]=0
                endalign*

                for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
                Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
                endalign*

                If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
                $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
                then also
                $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
                This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



                Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
                beginalign*
                [A, P]=0
                endalign*

                for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 7 hours ago









                LeviathanLeviathan

                747




                747



























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