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Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctive

Help finding the use of the subjunctiveMemento quod <subjunctive>Does using quippe in a relative clause require conjunctive?What is the optative?Can a subjunctive verb ever be modified by οὐ? (Greek)“..so that others may live”, future subjunctive?Passive Subjunctive Translated as ActiveWhich adverbs of possibility and probability warrant the subjunctive?When to use cum + subjunctive and when cum + indicativeReflexive Pronouns & Indirect StatementsAccusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat

2

This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.

The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.

My questions are:

• Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?


• Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?

There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.

coniunctivus purpose-clause

share|improve this question

asked 2 hours ago

Kevin MillerKevin Miller

1284

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Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

add a comment | 

2

This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.

The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.

My questions are:

• Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?


• Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?

There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.

coniunctivus purpose-clause

share|improve this question

asked 2 hours ago

Kevin MillerKevin Miller

1284

New contributor

Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

add a comment | 

This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.

The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.

My questions are:

• Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?


• Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?

There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.

coniunctivus purpose-clause

share|improve this question

asked 2 hours ago

Kevin MillerKevin Miller

1284

New contributor

Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

share|improve this question

asked 2 hours ago

Kevin MillerKevin Miller

1284

New contributor

Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

share|improve this question

asked 2 hours ago

Kevin MillerKevin Miller

1284

New contributor

Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

asked 2 hours ago

Kevin MillerKevin Miller

1284

New contributor

Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

asked 2 hours ago

Kevin MillerKevin Miller

1284

2 Answers
2

active

oldest

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3

You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.

* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 2 hours ago

cnreadcnread

8,90711124

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
  
  – Kevin Miller
  1 hour ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

2

The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.

share|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

tonytony

67715

add a comment | 

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3

You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.

* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 2 hours ago

cnreadcnread

8,90711124

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
  
  – Kevin Miller
  1 hour ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

3

You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.

* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 2 hours ago

cnreadcnread

8,90711124

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
  
  – Kevin Miller
  1 hour ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.

* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 2 hours ago

cnreadcnread

8,90711124

share|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 2 hours ago

cnreadcnread

8,90711124

answered 2 hours ago

cnreadcnread

8,90711124

answered 2 hours ago

cnreadcnread

8,90711124

2

The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.

share|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

tonytony

67715

add a comment | 

2

The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.

share|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

tonytony

67715

add a comment | 

The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.

share|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

tonytony

67715

share|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

tonytony

67715

answered 1 hour ago

tonytony

67715

answered 1 hour ago

tonytony

67715