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When did F become S in typeography, and why?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Were does Tifinagh come from?When and how did English become the Lingua Franca?Why did English become Lingua Franca of the modern world?When did English become a major subject in Japanese schools?When and how (why) did the idea that gender is not biological startWhen did French become the official language of France?When did Ireland become majority English-speakingOrigin of “It won't be done by next Tuesday”When did the British gentry stop wearing wigs?What is the earliest example of the usage of 'Nazis' to refer clearly and exclusively to the National-Socialists?










3















I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










share|improve this question
























  • it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    5 hours ago















3















I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










share|improve this question
























  • it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    5 hours ago













3












3








3








I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










share|improve this question
















I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?







18th-century language






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 1 hour ago









Ian Kemp

1033




1033










asked yesterday









Ryan_LRyan_L

26626




26626












  • it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    5 hours ago

















  • it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    5 hours ago
















it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

– Agent_L
5 hours ago





it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

– Agent_L
5 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















23














There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer




















  • 6





    This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.

    – TonyK
    14 hours ago












  • I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.

    – sgf
    14 hours ago






  • 1





    @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    13 hours ago











Your Answer








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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

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active

oldest

votes









23














There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer




















  • 6





    This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.

    – TonyK
    14 hours ago












  • I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.

    – sgf
    14 hours ago






  • 1





    @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    13 hours ago















23














There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer




















  • 6





    This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.

    – TonyK
    14 hours ago












  • I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.

    – sgf
    14 hours ago






  • 1





    @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    13 hours ago













23












23








23







There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer















There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?






share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 18 mins ago









Laurel

3228




3228










answered yesterday









Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

14.2k24555




14.2k24555







  • 6





    This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.

    – TonyK
    14 hours ago












  • I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.

    – sgf
    14 hours ago






  • 1





    @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    13 hours ago












  • 6





    This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.

    – TonyK
    14 hours ago












  • I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.

    – sgf
    14 hours ago






  • 1





    @TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    13 hours ago







6




6





This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.

– TonyK
14 hours ago






This has nothing to do with sounds, and less than nothing to do with Hungarian! It is a typographical issue only.

– TonyK
14 hours ago














I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.

– sgf
14 hours ago





I agree, the last paragraph really doesn't have anything to do with the issue at hand.

– sgf
14 hours ago




1




1





@TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.

– Denis de Bernardy
13 hours ago





@TonyK: that's precisely why I asked the separate question in Linguistics. Fixed.

– Denis de Bernardy
13 hours ago

















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