Counterexample for the monotone convergence theoremAbout assumptions in the monotone convergence theoremCounterexample for downward monotone convergence theorem on measurable setAn example related to the Monotone Convergence TheoremWhat are the hypotheses in Levi's monotone convergence theorem?Monotone convergence theorem assuming convergence in measureMonotone Convergence theorem for monotone decreasing sequencesThe meaning of “Need not hold” in Monotone convergence theorem for decreasing sequencesWhy does the Monotone Convergence Theorem require increasing sequence.Counterexample for Monotone convergence theoremAn counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem and dominated convergence theorem

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Counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem


About assumptions in the monotone convergence theoremCounterexample for downward monotone convergence theorem on measurable setAn example related to the Monotone Convergence TheoremWhat are the hypotheses in Levi's monotone convergence theorem?Monotone convergence theorem assuming convergence in measureMonotone Convergence theorem for monotone decreasing sequencesThe meaning of “Need not hold” in Monotone convergence theorem for decreasing sequencesWhy does the Monotone Convergence Theorem require increasing sequence.Counterexample for Monotone convergence theoremAn counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem and dominated convergence theorem













4












$begingroup$


Do you have a counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem when you omit the hypothesis that the sequence is increasing?
I was thinking about the example where the sequence $f_n$ would approach $f$ as $frac sin(x) x$ do towards $0$. It appears that the integrals are equal, isn't it?



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotone_convergence_theorem










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    and that the function is strictly positive, I ve understood that without this condition it does not work
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I suspect there may be more than one monotone convergence theorem (I use it for saying that an increasing bounded sequence has a limit which is its supremum)
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Well here we are talking about measure and integration. This theorem comes with Fatou's Lemma and Dominated convergence theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago















4












$begingroup$


Do you have a counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem when you omit the hypothesis that the sequence is increasing?
I was thinking about the example where the sequence $f_n$ would approach $f$ as $frac sin(x) x$ do towards $0$. It appears that the integrals are equal, isn't it?



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotone_convergence_theorem










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    and that the function is strictly positive, I ve understood that without this condition it does not work
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I suspect there may be more than one monotone convergence theorem (I use it for saying that an increasing bounded sequence has a limit which is its supremum)
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Well here we are talking about measure and integration. This theorem comes with Fatou's Lemma and Dominated convergence theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago













4












4








4





$begingroup$


Do you have a counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem when you omit the hypothesis that the sequence is increasing?
I was thinking about the example where the sequence $f_n$ would approach $f$ as $frac sin(x) x$ do towards $0$. It appears that the integrals are equal, isn't it?



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotone_convergence_theorem










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Do you have a counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem when you omit the hypothesis that the sequence is increasing?
I was thinking about the example where the sequence $f_n$ would approach $f$ as $frac sin(x) x$ do towards $0$. It appears that the integrals are equal, isn't it?



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monotone_convergence_theorem







real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 9 hours ago









YuiTo Cheng

2,0532637




2,0532637










asked 10 hours ago









Marine GalantinMarine Galantin

913319




913319











  • $begingroup$
    and that the function is strictly positive, I ve understood that without this condition it does not work
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I suspect there may be more than one monotone convergence theorem (I use it for saying that an increasing bounded sequence has a limit which is its supremum)
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Well here we are talking about measure and integration. This theorem comes with Fatou's Lemma and Dominated convergence theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    and that the function is strictly positive, I ve understood that without this condition it does not work
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I suspect there may be more than one monotone convergence theorem (I use it for saying that an increasing bounded sequence has a limit which is its supremum)
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    10 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Well here we are talking about measure and integration. This theorem comes with Fatou's Lemma and Dominated convergence theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago















$begingroup$
and that the function is strictly positive, I ve understood that without this condition it does not work
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago




$begingroup$
and that the function is strictly positive, I ve understood that without this condition it does not work
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago












$begingroup$
I suspect there may be more than one monotone convergence theorem (I use it for saying that an increasing bounded sequence has a limit which is its supremum)
$endgroup$
– Henry
10 hours ago




$begingroup$
I suspect there may be more than one monotone convergence theorem (I use it for saying that an increasing bounded sequence has a limit which is its supremum)
$endgroup$
– Henry
10 hours ago












$begingroup$
Well here we are talking about measure and integration. This theorem comes with Fatou's Lemma and Dominated convergence theorem.
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago




$begingroup$
Well here we are talking about measure and integration. This theorem comes with Fatou's Lemma and Dominated convergence theorem.
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Take $f_n(x)=frac1nboldsymbol 1_[0,n]$. You have that $$lim_nto infty f_n(x)=0,$$ but $$lim_nto infty int_mathbb R f_n=1.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    there isn't ? can you detail a little bit please ? this function isn't integrable with lebesgue measure ? (I haven't yet integrate / compute anything with this new integral for me. I'm for now only doing the theory)
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The problem it's $xmapsto fracsin(x)x$ is not Lebesgue integral on $mathbb R$ (even if it's Riemann integrable). Now, if a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, then it's limit is in $L^1$. Therefore, there are no sequence $(f_n)$ that converges to $f(x)=fracsin(x)x$ in $L^1$. @MarineGalantin
    $endgroup$
    – Pierre
    10 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to explain to a neophyte as I am.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3












$begingroup$

Take $f_n(x)=frac1nboldsymbol 1_[0,n]$. You have that $$lim_nto infty f_n(x)=0,$$ but $$lim_nto infty int_mathbb R f_n=1.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    there isn't ? can you detail a little bit please ? this function isn't integrable with lebesgue measure ? (I haven't yet integrate / compute anything with this new integral for me. I'm for now only doing the theory)
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The problem it's $xmapsto fracsin(x)x$ is not Lebesgue integral on $mathbb R$ (even if it's Riemann integrable). Now, if a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, then it's limit is in $L^1$. Therefore, there are no sequence $(f_n)$ that converges to $f(x)=fracsin(x)x$ in $L^1$. @MarineGalantin
    $endgroup$
    – Pierre
    10 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to explain to a neophyte as I am.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago















3












$begingroup$

Take $f_n(x)=frac1nboldsymbol 1_[0,n]$. You have that $$lim_nto infty f_n(x)=0,$$ but $$lim_nto infty int_mathbb R f_n=1.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    there isn't ? can you detail a little bit please ? this function isn't integrable with lebesgue measure ? (I haven't yet integrate / compute anything with this new integral for me. I'm for now only doing the theory)
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The problem it's $xmapsto fracsin(x)x$ is not Lebesgue integral on $mathbb R$ (even if it's Riemann integrable). Now, if a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, then it's limit is in $L^1$. Therefore, there are no sequence $(f_n)$ that converges to $f(x)=fracsin(x)x$ in $L^1$. @MarineGalantin
    $endgroup$
    – Pierre
    10 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to explain to a neophyte as I am.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago













3












3








3





$begingroup$

Take $f_n(x)=frac1nboldsymbol 1_[0,n]$. You have that $$lim_nto infty f_n(x)=0,$$ but $$lim_nto infty int_mathbb R f_n=1.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Take $f_n(x)=frac1nboldsymbol 1_[0,n]$. You have that $$lim_nto infty f_n(x)=0,$$ but $$lim_nto infty int_mathbb R f_n=1.$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 10 hours ago

























answered 10 hours ago









PierrePierre

5610




5610











  • $begingroup$
    there isn't ? can you detail a little bit please ? this function isn't integrable with lebesgue measure ? (I haven't yet integrate / compute anything with this new integral for me. I'm for now only doing the theory)
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The problem it's $xmapsto fracsin(x)x$ is not Lebesgue integral on $mathbb R$ (even if it's Riemann integrable). Now, if a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, then it's limit is in $L^1$. Therefore, there are no sequence $(f_n)$ that converges to $f(x)=fracsin(x)x$ in $L^1$. @MarineGalantin
    $endgroup$
    – Pierre
    10 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to explain to a neophyte as I am.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    there isn't ? can you detail a little bit please ? this function isn't integrable with lebesgue measure ? (I haven't yet integrate / compute anything with this new integral for me. I'm for now only doing the theory)
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The problem it's $xmapsto fracsin(x)x$ is not Lebesgue integral on $mathbb R$ (even if it's Riemann integrable). Now, if a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, then it's limit is in $L^1$. Therefore, there are no sequence $(f_n)$ that converges to $f(x)=fracsin(x)x$ in $L^1$. @MarineGalantin
    $endgroup$
    – Pierre
    10 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to explain to a neophyte as I am.
    $endgroup$
    – Marine Galantin
    10 hours ago















$begingroup$
there isn't ? can you detail a little bit please ? this function isn't integrable with lebesgue measure ? (I haven't yet integrate / compute anything with this new integral for me. I'm for now only doing the theory)
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago




$begingroup$
there isn't ? can you detail a little bit please ? this function isn't integrable with lebesgue measure ? (I haven't yet integrate / compute anything with this new integral for me. I'm for now only doing the theory)
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
The problem it's $xmapsto fracsin(x)x$ is not Lebesgue integral on $mathbb R$ (even if it's Riemann integrable). Now, if a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, then it's limit is in $L^1$. Therefore, there are no sequence $(f_n)$ that converges to $f(x)=fracsin(x)x$ in $L^1$. @MarineGalantin
$endgroup$
– Pierre
10 hours ago





$begingroup$
The problem it's $xmapsto fracsin(x)x$ is not Lebesgue integral on $mathbb R$ (even if it's Riemann integrable). Now, if a sequence $(f_n)$ is Cauchy sequence in $L^1$, then it's limit is in $L^1$. Therefore, there are no sequence $(f_n)$ that converges to $f(x)=fracsin(x)x$ in $L^1$. @MarineGalantin
$endgroup$
– Pierre
10 hours ago













$begingroup$
Thank you for taking the time to explain to a neophyte as I am.
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago




$begingroup$
Thank you for taking the time to explain to a neophyte as I am.
$endgroup$
– Marine Galantin
10 hours ago

















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